ICSE 2026 Physical Education Prediction Paper ICSE Board Exam Class 10 Sample Paper Question Paper Free Download Board Exam Preparation Sports Cricket Football Hockey Basketball Volleyball Badminton Nashik PE Paper

ICSE Physical Education 2026 Prediction Paper — Free Practice Paper with Complete Solutions

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Tushar Parik

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Your ICSE Physical Education 2026 exam is approaching.

This is a full 100-mark theory prediction paper with complete solutions.

Section A (50 marks) — 20 MCQs (including Assertion-Reason and Match the Columns) + short answer questions + an application-based case study. Section B (50 marks) — 6 team games: Cricket, Football, Hockey, Basketball, Volleyball, and Badminton, each with definitions, rules, field diagrams, match scenarios, and governing bodies.

Why This Prediction Paper?

At Bright Tutorials, Nashik, our expert Physical Education teachers have analyzed previous ICSE board exam patterns, the official CISCE specimen papers, and the latest syllabus requirements to create this comprehensive prediction paper. This paper is designed to:

  • Maximize your score — every question targets high-probability topics based on CISCE pattern analysis
  • Build exam confidence — practice under real exam conditions with the exact 100-mark format
  • Master all question formats — includes MCQs, assertion-reason, match the columns, case study, definitions, short answers, and long answers
  • Cover all 6 team games — Cricket, Football, Hockey, Basketball, Volleyball, and Badminton with rules, skills, field diagrams, and governing bodies
  • Complete solutions provided — detailed answers with explanations for every question

What Makes This Paper Special?

  • Covers ALL 8 theory chapters — Growth & Development, Physical Education, Somatotypes, Physical Fitness, Sports Training, Safety in Sports, Health Education, Careers
  • 20 MCQs including Assertion-Reason and Match the Columns formats
  • Application-based case study question (Arjun the sprinter scenario)
  • 6 complete team games — Cricket, Football, Hockey, Basketball, Volleyball, Badminton
  • Complete answer key with detailed explanations
  • Based on analysis of 2024 & 2025 board papers + CISCE specimen papers

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ICSE CLASS X — PHYSICAL EDUCATION

PREDICTION PAPER FOR 2026 BOARD EXAMINATION

Maximum Marks: 100
Time allowed: Two hours

Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.

Section A is compulsory. Answer questions on any TWO games from Section B.

The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].


SECTION A (50 Marks)

Attempt all questions from this Section.


Question 1

Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. [20]

(i) Which of the following is a quantitative change in the human body?

  • (a) Developing social skills
  • (b) Increase in height and weight
  • (c) Improving emotional control
  • (d) Learning a new language

[Answer: (b) — Growth refers to quantitative, measurable physical changes such as increase in height, weight, and body dimensions.]

(ii) Assertion (A): An ectomorph body type is best suited for marathon running.
Reason (R): Ectomorphs have a lean body with long limbs and low body fat percentage.

  • (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (c) A is true, but R is false
  • (d) A is false, but R is true

[Answer: (a) — Ectomorphs are naturally suited to endurance sports like marathon running due to their lean build and low body fat, which reduces energy expenditure during prolonged activities.]

(iii) Which component of physical fitness refers to the ability of the heart and lungs to supply oxygen during sustained physical activity?

  • (a) Muscular Strength
  • (b) Flexibility
  • (c) Cardiovascular Endurance
  • (d) Agility

[Answer: (c) — Cardiovascular/Respiratory Endurance is the ability of the circulatory and respiratory systems to supply oxygen to working muscles during prolonged exercise.]

(iv) The P.R.I.C.E. protocol is used for treating sports injuries. What does the 'C' stand for?

  • (a) Cooling
  • (b) Compression
  • (c) Circulation
  • (d) Conditioning

[Answer: (b) — P.R.I.C.E. stands for Protection, Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation. Compression involves wrapping the injured area with an elastic bandage to reduce swelling.]

(v) Which of the following is NOT a principle of sports training?

  • (a) Principle of Overload
  • (b) Principle of Progression
  • (c) Principle of Elimination
  • (d) Principle of Recovery

[Answer: (c) — Principle of Elimination does not exist. The principles of sports training include Individuality, Specificity, Progression, Overload, Adaptation, Recovery, Reversibility, Variance, Frequency, Continuity, Active Participation, and Periodization.]

(vi) Match the following:

Column A Column B
1. Endomorph P. Lean, narrow frame, long limbs
2. Mesomorph Q. Round, soft body, wider hips
3. Ectomorph R. Athletic, muscular, broad shoulders
  • (a) 1-Q, 2-R, 3-P
  • (b) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R
  • (c) 1-R, 2-P, 3-Q
  • (d) 1-Q, 2-P, 3-R

[Answer: (a) — Endomorph: round/soft body (Q); Mesomorph: athletic/muscular (R); Ectomorph: lean/narrow (P)]

(vii) Which nutrient is known as the 'body-building' nutrient?

  • (a) Carbohydrates
  • (b) Fats
  • (c) Proteins
  • (d) Vitamins

[Answer: (c) — Proteins are essential for growth, repair, and maintenance of body tissues and are therefore called body-building nutrients.]

(viii) Plantar Fasciitis is an injury affecting which part of the body?

  • (a) Knee joint
  • (b) Elbow joint
  • (c) Bottom of the foot (heel)
  • (d) Shoulder joint

[Answer: (c) — Plantar Fasciitis is the inflammation of the plantar fascia, a thick band of tissue running along the bottom of the foot connecting the heel bone to the toes.]

(ix) The Principle of Specificity in sports training states that:

  • (a) Training should gradually increase in intensity
  • (b) Training should be specific to the sport or activity being performed
  • (c) All athletes should follow the same training programme
  • (d) Training effects are permanent once achieved

[Answer: (b) — The Principle of Specificity states that training must be relevant and appropriate to the sport or activity in order to produce the desired effect.]

(x) During which stage of human development does puberty typically occur?

  • (a) Infancy
  • (b) Childhood
  • (c) Adolescence
  • (d) Adulthood

[Answer: (c) — Adolescence (12-19 years) is the stage during which puberty occurs, characterized by rapid physical growth, hormonal changes, and the development of secondary sexual characteristics.]

(xi) Which of the following is a motor skill-related component of physical fitness?

  • (a) Body Composition
  • (b) Cardiovascular Endurance
  • (c) Flexibility
  • (d) Agility

[Answer: (d) — Agility is a motor skill-related component. Motor skill components include Speed, Power, Coordination, Agility, Balance, and Accuracy. Health-related components include Cardiovascular Endurance, Muscular Strength, Flexibility, Body Composition, and Stamina.]

(xii) A concussion is:

  • (a) A fracture of the skull
  • (b) A traumatic brain injury caused by a blow or jolt to the head
  • (c) A muscle strain in the neck
  • (d) A torn ligament in the spine

[Answer: (b) — A concussion is a traumatic brain injury that affects brain function, usually caused by a blow, bump, or jolt to the head. Symptoms include headache, confusion, dizziness, and memory problems.]

(xiii) The Macro cycle in periodization refers to:

  • (a) A single training session
  • (b) A weekly training plan
  • (c) An annual or long-term training plan
  • (d) A monthly training plan

[Answer: (c) — In periodization: Macro cycle = annual/long-term plan (typically 1 year); Meso cycle = medium-term plan (typically 3-6 weeks); Micro cycle = short-term plan (typically 1 week).]

(xiv) Which of the following careers in Physical Education involves analysing an athlete's mental state and helping them perform better under pressure?

  • (a) Sports Commentary
  • (b) Sports Psychology
  • (c) Sports Management
  • (d) Fitness Training

[Answer: (b) — Sports Psychology involves studying the mental aspects of sport and exercise, helping athletes manage performance anxiety, build confidence, and maintain focus during competition.]

(xv) Assertion (A): Warm-up exercises before a game help prevent injuries.
Reason (R): Warm-up increases blood flow to muscles and improves joint flexibility.

  • (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (c) A is true, but R is false
  • (d) A is false, but R is true

[Answer: (a) — Both statements are true, and the increased blood flow and joint flexibility from warm-up directly contribute to injury prevention by preparing the body for physical activity.]

(xvi) Which vitamin deficiency causes Rickets in children?

  • (a) Vitamin A
  • (b) Vitamin B12
  • (c) Vitamin C
  • (d) Vitamin D

[Answer: (d) — Vitamin D deficiency causes Rickets, a condition that leads to soft and weak bones in children. Vitamin D is essential for calcium absorption and bone development.]

(xvii) The Principle of Reversibility in sports training means:

  • (a) Training intensity should increase over time
  • (b) Fitness gains are lost if training is discontinued
  • (c) Athletes should train in reverse order
  • (d) Recovery time should be gradually reduced

[Answer: (b) — The Principle of Reversibility (also called the 'Use it or Lose it' principle) states that the benefits of training are reversible — if training stops, the body will gradually return to its pre-training state.]

(xviii) Shin splints cause pain in which area?

  • (a) Upper arm
  • (b) Lower back
  • (c) Front of the lower leg (shin bone)
  • (d) Back of the thigh

[Answer: (c) — Shin splints (medial tibial stress syndrome) cause pain along the shin bone (tibia) in the front of the lower leg, commonly caused by overuse during running or jumping activities.]

(xix) Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting physical fitness?

  • (a) Heredity
  • (b) Nutrition
  • (c) Blood group
  • (d) Environment

[Answer: (c) — Blood group does not affect physical fitness. Factors affecting physical fitness include Heredity, Nutrition, Environment, Training, Illness/Injury, Motivation, Emotional Stability, Lifestyle, and Posture.]

(xx) A balanced diet must include all essential nutrients in appropriate proportions. How many components does a balanced diet have?

  • (a) 5
  • (b) 6
  • (c) 7
  • (d) 4

[Answer: (c) — A balanced diet has 7 components: Carbohydrates, Proteins, Fats, Vitamins, Minerals, Water, and Fibre/Roughage.]


Question 2 [10]

(a) Define the terms 'Growth' and 'Development'. State one key difference between them. [2]

Answer:
- Growth refers to the quantitative increase in body size, such as increase in height, weight, and body dimensions. It is measurable and physical in nature.
- Development refers to the qualitative changes in a person's abilities, skills, and capacities — including emotional, social, intellectual, and psychological aspects.
- Key difference: Growth is quantitative and measurable (e.g., height in cm), while Development is qualitative and often difficult to measure precisely (e.g., emotional maturity).

(b) List any four physical characteristics of adolescence as a stage of human development. [2]

Answer:
1. Rapid growth spurt — significant increase in height and weight
2. Onset of puberty — development of secondary sexual characteristics
3. Hormonal changes — increased activity of growth and sex hormones
4. Development of muscular and skeletal systems — bones become denser, muscles grow stronger
5. Voice changes (especially in boys — voice deepens)

(Any four points for full marks)

(c) Explain the 'Principle of Overload' with a suitable example from sports training. [3]

Answer:
The Principle of Overload states that in order to improve fitness levels, the body must be subjected to a training load that is greater than what it normally experiences. The body adapts to the current training stimulus, so the intensity, duration, or frequency of exercise must be progressively increased to continue making improvements.

Example: A sprinter who can currently run 100m in 12 seconds trains by running repeated 100m sprints. To apply overload, the coach may:
- Increase the number of sprints (frequency/volume)
- Reduce the rest time between sprints (intensity)
- Add resistance training such as running with a weighted vest (intensity)

Without overload, the sprinter's body will plateau and no further improvement will occur.

(d) Explain any three factors that influence human growth and development. [3]

Answer:
1. Heredity (Genetics): The genetic makeup inherited from parents largely determines physical characteristics such as height, body type, and metabolic rate. For example, tall parents are more likely to have tall children.

  1. Nutrition: Proper nutrition during childhood and adolescence is critical for growth. A balanced diet rich in proteins, calcium, vitamins, and minerals supports bone growth, muscle development, and brain function. Malnutrition can lead to stunted growth and developmental delays.

  2. Environment: The physical and social environment affects development. Access to clean air, safe living conditions, quality education, and a supportive family environment promotes healthy development. Exposure to pollution, stress, or poverty can negatively impact both physical and psychological growth.


Question 3 [10]

(a) Differentiate between health-related fitness and motor skill-related fitness. Give two examples of each. [2]

Answer:

Health-Related Fitness Motor Skill-Related Fitness
Relates to the ability to perform daily activities without undue fatigue and maintain overall health Relates to the ability to perform specific sports skills efficiently
Examples: Cardiovascular Endurance, Muscular Strength, Flexibility, Body Composition Examples: Speed, Agility, Power, Coordination, Balance, Accuracy
Important for general health and well-being Important for athletic performance

Examples:
- Health-related: (1) Cardiovascular Endurance — ability of heart and lungs to sustain activity; (2) Flexibility — range of motion at a joint
- Motor skill-related: (1) Agility — ability to change direction quickly; (2) Power — ability to exert maximum force in minimum time

(b) State four symptoms of a concussion. [2]

Answer:
1. Severe headache or pressure in the head
2. Confusion, disorientation, or difficulty concentrating
3. Dizziness, loss of balance, or blurred vision
4. Nausea or vomiting
5. Temporary loss of consciousness
6. Memory problems (difficulty remembering events before or after the injury)
7. Slurred speech or delayed responses

(Any four points for full marks)

(c) Explain three objectives of Physical Education. [3]

Answer:
1. Physical Development Objective: Physical Education aims to develop physical fitness, strength, endurance, flexibility, and coordination through regular exercise and sports participation. It promotes overall health by preventing lifestyle diseases such as obesity, diabetes, and heart disease.

  1. Social Development Objective: Through team sports and group activities, Physical Education teaches cooperation, teamwork, leadership, sportsmanship, and respect for rules and opponents. Students learn to work with diverse groups, handle conflicts, and build lasting relationships.

  2. Psychological/Emotional Development Objective: Physical Education helps develop mental toughness, stress management, self-confidence, and emotional control. Regular physical activity releases endorphins that reduce anxiety and depression, while competitive sports teach students to handle both victory and defeat gracefully.

(d) What is malnutrition? Distinguish between undernutrition and overnutrition with one example each. [3]

Answer:
Malnutrition is a condition resulting from an imbalanced diet — either insufficient or excessive intake of nutrients — that negatively affects the body's growth, function, and health.

Undernutrition Overnutrition
Occurs when the body does not receive enough nutrients to meet its needs Occurs when the body receives more nutrients than it needs
Leads to weakness, stunted growth, compromised immunity Leads to obesity, diabetes, cardiovascular diseases
Caused by poverty, famine, or poor dietary habits Caused by excessive consumption of high-calorie, processed foods
Example: Kwashiorkor — caused by severe protein deficiency in children, leading to swollen abdomen, thin limbs, and skin problems Example: Obesity — excessive intake of calories (especially fats and sugars) leading to abnormal fat accumulation, increasing risk of heart disease and diabetes

Question 4 [10]

Read the following case study and answer the questions that follow.

Case Study:

Arjun is a 16-year-old student who recently joined his school's athletics team as a sprinter. During his first month of training, his coach designed a programme that included the same 5 km daily run at the same pace. Arjun initially felt tired but gradually found the runs easy. However, after 6 weeks, his 100m sprint time had not improved at all.

His coach then redesigned the programme: instead of daily 5 km runs, Arjun now trains with short 50m and 100m sprints, interval training, and resistance exercises (squats and lunges). The coach also ensured Arjun had rest days between intense sessions and gradually increased the training load each week.

During a practice session, Arjun felt a sharp pain in the front of his lower leg while sprinting. The pain worsened when he continued running. The coach immediately stopped his activity and applied first aid.

(a) Identify the training principle that was violated in Arjun's initial programme (5 km runs for sprinting). Explain why it was wrong. [2]

Answer:
The Principle of Specificity was violated. Arjun's goal was to improve his 100m sprint speed, but his training consisted of long-distance 5 km runs. Specificity states that training must be relevant to the desired outcome — long-distance running develops cardiovascular endurance but does not effectively improve explosive sprint speed. The coach's revised programme (short sprints, interval training, resistance exercises) correctly applies the principle of specificity to sprinting.

(b) Which two training principles did the coach correctly apply in the redesigned programme? Explain each briefly. [2]

Answer:
1. Principle of Recovery: The coach ensured Arjun had rest days between intense sessions. Recovery allows the body to repair damaged tissues, replenish energy stores, and adapt to the training stimulus. Without adequate rest, overtraining can lead to fatigue, decreased performance, and injury.

  1. Principle of Progression: The coach gradually increased the training load each week. Progression means that training intensity, volume, or complexity should be increased systematically over time to continue challenging the body and producing improvements, rather than making sudden large increases that risk injury.

(c) Based on the symptoms described (sharp pain in the front of the lower leg while sprinting), identify the most likely injury. State two causes and two methods of prevention. [3]

Answer:
The most likely injury is Shin Splints (Medial Tibial Stress Syndrome).

Causes:
1. Overuse — excessive repetitive stress on the shin bone and surrounding muscles from running on hard surfaces
2. Sudden increase in training intensity without adequate preparation
3. Running in worn-out shoes with poor cushioning and arch support

(Any two causes for full marks)

Prevention:
1. Wear proper athletic footwear with adequate cushioning and arch support, and replace shoes regularly
2. Gradually increase training intensity (follow the Principle of Progression) rather than making sudden jumps in distance or speed
3. Include proper warm-up and cool-down exercises in every training session
4. Run on softer surfaces (grass, track) rather than concrete or asphalt when possible

(Any two methods for full marks)

(d) Describe the P.R.I.C.E. protocol that the coach should apply as first aid for Arjun's injury. [3]

Answer:
The P.R.I.C.E. protocol is a first aid treatment method for acute sports injuries:

  1. P — Protection: Protect the injured area from further damage. Remove Arjun from the running surface and ensure no pressure is applied to the injured shin.

  2. R — Rest: Stop all physical activity immediately. Arjun should not continue running or put weight on the injured leg. Rest allows the healing process to begin.

  3. I — Ice: Apply ice or a cold pack wrapped in a cloth to the injured area for 15-20 minutes every 2-3 hours. Ice reduces swelling, pain, and inflammation by constricting blood vessels.

  4. C — Compression: Wrap the injured area with an elastic bandage (crepe bandage) to reduce swelling and provide support. The bandage should be firm but not so tight that it restricts blood circulation.

  5. E — Elevation: Elevate the injured leg above the level of the heart (e.g., by placing pillows under it). Elevation uses gravity to reduce blood flow to the injured area, thereby reducing swelling and pain.


SECTION B (50 Marks)

Answer questions on any TWO games from this Section.


CRICKET

Question 5 [25]

(i) Define the following terms: [8]

(a) Power Play: A mandatory phase in limited-overs cricket (ODIs and T20s) where fielding restrictions are applied. During the Power Play, only a limited number of fielders (usually 2) are allowed outside the inner circle (30-yard circle), giving batsmen an advantage for scoring. In ODIs, the first 10 overs are the mandatory Power Play.

(b) LBW (Leg Before Wicket): A mode of dismissal where the batsman is out if the ball, which would have hit the stumps, strikes any part of the batsman's body (usually the leg or pad) before hitting the bat. The ball must pitch in line or outside off stump (if no shot is offered, the pitching line restriction is relaxed).

(c) Night Watchman: A lower-order batsman sent in to bat near the end of a day's play (in Test cricket) to protect a more skilled batsman from having to bat in difficult conditions (fading light, new ball). The night watchman absorbs the remaining overs and the senior batsman resumes the next day.

(d) Free Hit: In limited-overs cricket, the delivery immediately following a no-ball (for overstepping) is a Free Hit, during which the batsman cannot be dismissed by any method other than a run out, hitting the ball twice, or obstructing the field. The fielding side cannot change their fielding positions.

(ii) Answer the following: [9]

(a) State any three duties of the square-leg umpire in cricket. [3]

Answer:
1. Judges stumpings and run-outs at the striker's end by observing whether the batsman is behind the crease
2. Signals no-ball for height (full toss above waist) and bouncer above shoulder height
3. Counts the number of balls in an over and communicates with the main (bowler's end) umpire
4. Judges wide deliveries on the leg side
5. Gives decisions on hit-wicket dismissals
6. Monitors the batsman for any unfair actions and watches for short runs

(Any three duties for full marks)

(b) Explain the difference between a 'Wide' and a 'No Ball' with examples. [3]

Answer:

Wide No Ball
A delivery that passes too far from the batsman to be playable with a normal cricket shot An illegal delivery by the bowler
Judged based on distance from the batsman's position Caused by overstepping the popping crease, dangerous bowling, or illegal actions
1 extra run awarded + the ball must be re-bowled 1 extra run awarded + the ball must be re-bowled + Free Hit in limited overs
Example: Ball passes 1 metre outside the off stump with the batsman standing in normal guard Example: Bowler's front foot lands entirely beyond the popping crease while delivering
Batsman CAN be stumped off a wide Batsman CANNOT be bowled or caught off a no-ball

(c) Draw and label a cricket pitch showing: the popping crease, bowling crease, return crease, and stumps at both ends. Mark the pitch length (22 yards). [3]

Answer:

        ← 22 yards (20.12 m) →

   [Stumps]                    [Stumps]
   |  |  |                    |  |  |
───┤  │  ├─── Bowling     ───┤  │  ├─── Bowling
   Return  Return          Return  Return
   Crease  Crease          Crease  Crease

════════════════════════════════════════ Popping Crease
   ← 4 ft →                ← 4 ft →
   (1.22m)                  (1.22m)

Key measurements:
- Pitch length: 22 yards (20.12 m) between the two sets of stumps
- Popping crease: 4 feet (1.22 m) in front of the stumps at each end
- Bowling crease: In line with the stumps (8 ft 8 in / 2.64 m long)
- Return crease: Perpendicular to bowling crease, 4 ft 4 in (1.32 m) from middle stump on each side
- Stumps: 3 stumps, 28 inches (71.1 cm) high, equally spaced to span 9 inches (22.86 cm)
- Bails: 4.375 inches (11.1 cm) long, resting on top of stumps

(iii) Answer the following: [8]

(a) Ravi is batting in a T20 match. The bowler delivers a full toss that reaches Ravi above his waist without bouncing. Ravi hits the ball and is caught by a fielder. Is Ravi out? Explain the rule that applies. [4]

Answer:
Ravi is NOT out. A full toss above waist height of the batsman in the normal standing position is called a No Ball. Since the delivery is a no-ball, the catch does not count — a batsman cannot be dismissed caught off a no-ball.

The applicable rules are:
- Law 21.10: A delivery that passes or would have passed above waist height of the striker standing upright at the crease is a no-ball
- In T20 cricket, this no-ball also results in a Free Hit on the next delivery
- The batting team is awarded 1 extra run (no-ball extra)
- If the umpire considers the delivery dangerous (beamer), the bowler receives an official warning. Two warnings in an innings result in the bowler being banned from bowling further in that innings

(b) Name the governing bodies of cricket at the national and international levels. State any two major tournaments at each level. [4]

Answer:
- National governing body: BCCI (Board of Control for Cricket in India)
- Major national tournaments: (1) Ranji Trophy (first-class cricket), (2) Indian Premier League (IPL — T20 franchise league)

  • International governing body: ICC (International Cricket Council)
  • Major international tournaments: (1) ICC Cricket World Cup (ODI, held every 4 years), (2) ICC T20 World Cup (held every 2 years)

Question 6 [25]

(i) Define the following terms: [8]

(a) Danger Area: The central portion of the cricket pitch (a rectangular area, typically 2 feet wide, down the centre of the pitch) where bowlers are not allowed to run during their follow-through. If a bowler runs on the danger area, the umpire issues a warning. Repeated offences can lead to the bowler being banned from bowling in that innings, as running on this area damages the pitch surface and can cause uneven bounce.

(b) Bye: Runs scored when the ball passes the batsman without touching the bat or any part of the batsman's body, and the wicketkeeper fails to collect the ball, allowing the batsmen to run. Byes are recorded as extras (not credited to the batsman). The leg umpire signals a bye by raising one hand above the head.

(c) Duck: A score of zero (0) by a batsman. When a batsman is dismissed without scoring any runs, they are said to be "out for a duck." A Golden Duck means the batsman was dismissed on the very first ball they faced. A Diamond Duck means dismissed without facing a single delivery (e.g., run out at the non-striker's end).

(d) Sight Screen: A large white or black movable screen placed on the boundary directly behind the bowler's arm at both ends of the ground. Its purpose is to provide a uniform background for the batsman to see the ball clearly against, without distraction from the crowd or surroundings. The batsman can request the sight screen to be adjusted before facing.

(ii) Answer the following: [9]

(a) Explain any three fielding positions on the off side with their approximate locations. [3]

Answer:
1. Point: Positioned square of the wicket on the off side, roughly at right angles to the batsman. This fielder covers cut shots and horizontal bat shots played through the off side.

  1. Cover: Positioned between point and mid-off, slightly ahead of square on the off side. This is one of the most important fielding positions, covering drives through the off side.

  2. Mid-off: Positioned straight on the off side, roughly in line with the bowler's end. This fielder prevents straight drives on the off side and is one of the two closest fielders to the bowler.

(b) Identify the umpire signals for: (i) No Ball, (ii) Six Runs, (iii) Dead Ball. [3]

Answer:
1. No Ball: The umpire extends one arm horizontally at shoulder height to the side.
2. Six Runs: The umpire raises both arms straight above the head.
3. Dead Ball: The umpire crosses and re-crosses both wrists below the waist in front of the body.

(c) State the dimensions and specifications of a cricket ball used in men's international cricket. [3]

Answer:
- Weight: Between 155.9 g and 163 g (5.5 to 5.75 ounces)
- Circumference: Between 22.4 cm and 22.9 cm (8.81 to 9 inches)
- Colour: Red (Test cricket), White (ODI and T20 cricket)
- Material: Cork core wound with string, covered with leather (four pieces stitched together with a raised seam)

(iii) Answer the following: [8]

(a) During a Test match, the third umpire is asked to review a run-out decision using replays. Explain the Decision Review System (DRS) and how it works in cricket. [4]

Answer:
The Decision Review System (DRS) is a technology-based system used to assist on-field umpires in making accurate decisions:

  • Each team gets a limited number of unsuccessful reviews per innings (typically 2 in Tests, 1 in limited-overs)
  • If a team believes the umpire's decision is incorrect, the captain or batsman can request a review within 15 seconds
  • The third umpire reviews the decision using:
  • Ball-tracking technology (Hawk-Eye): Predicts the path of the ball for LBW decisions
  • Ultra Edge/Snickometer: Detects edges using audio and thermal imaging
  • Hot Spot: Infrared imaging to detect contact between ball and bat/pad
  • TV replays: Multiple camera angles for run-outs, stumpings, catches
  • For LBW, the "Umpire's Call" zone applies — if the ball-tracking shows the ball hitting the stumps but within a margin of error, the original on-field decision stands
  • If the review is successful (decision overturned), the team retains the review

(b) Differentiate between Test cricket, ODI cricket, and T20 cricket in terms of: number of overs, number of players, match duration, and use of Power Plays. [4]

Answer:

Feature Test Cricket ODI Cricket T20 Cricket
Overs Unlimited (per innings) 50 overs per side 20 overs per side
Players 11 per side 11 per side 11 per side
Duration Up to 5 days (2 innings per side) 1 day (~8 hours) ~3-4 hours
Power Plays Not applicable Yes — Overs 1-10 (mandatory), Overs 11-40 (mid), Overs 41-50 (final) Yes — Overs 1-6 (mandatory)
Ball colour Red White White
Result Win, Draw, or Tie Win, Tie, or No Result Win, Tie (Super Over), or No Result

FOOTBALL

Question 7 [25]

(i) Define the following terms: [8]

(a) Offside: A player is in an offside position if they are nearer to the opponent's goal line than both the ball and the second-last defender (usually the last outfield player) at the moment the ball is played to them by a teammate. Being in an offside position is only penalised if the player is actively involved in play (interfering with play, interfering with an opponent, or gaining an advantage). An indirect free kick is awarded to the defending team.

(b) Penalty Kick: A direct free kick awarded to the attacking team when a defending player commits a foul punishable by a direct free kick inside their own penalty area (the 18-yard box). The kick is taken from the penalty spot (12 yards from the centre of the goal). All players except the kicker and goalkeeper must be outside the penalty area and behind the ball.

(c) Nutmeg: A skill in football where a player passes the ball between an opponent's legs and retrieves it on the other side, effectively going past the defender. It is considered a humiliating move for the defender and a display of high technical skill.

(d) Through Pass: A forward pass played into the space behind the opposing defence for a teammate to run onto. The pass is timed so that the receiving player can collect the ball while remaining onside at the moment the ball is played. It is an attacking strategy used to break defensive lines.

(ii) Answer the following: [9]

(a) State any three duties of the referee in football. [3]

Answer:
1. Enforces the Laws of the Game and controls the match in cooperation with the assistant referees and fourth official
2. Acts as the official timekeeper — keeps track of match time, adds stoppage time, and decides when to stop and restart play
3. Awards free kicks (direct or indirect), penalty kicks, throw-ins, goal kicks, and corner kicks based on fouls and infringements
4. Shows yellow cards (caution/warning) and red cards (sending off) to players for misconduct
5. Stops play for injuries, ensures injured players receive treatment off the field, and restarts play
6. Allows or disallows goals and ensures fair play throughout the match

(Any three duties for full marks)

(b) Explain the difference between a direct free kick and an indirect free kick. Give one example of a foul that results in each. [3]

Answer:

Direct Free Kick Indirect Free Kick
A goal CAN be scored directly from the kick (without the ball touching another player) A goal CANNOT be scored directly — the ball must touch at least one other player before entering the goal
Awarded for physical fouls and handball Awarded for technical offences and dangerous play
Example foul: A defender trips an opponent intentionally (kicking, tripping, pushing, or charging an opponent) Example foul: Goalkeeper holds the ball for more than 6 seconds, or a player plays in a dangerous manner (high boot near another player's head without contact)

(c) Draw and label a football field showing: centre circle, halfway line, penalty area, goal area, penalty spot, penalty arc, and corner arc. [3]

Answer:

   ┌────────────────────────────────────────────────────────┐
   │  ┌──────┐                                  ┌──────┐   │
   │  │ Goal │                                  │ Goal │   │
   │  │ Area │                                  │ Area │   │
   │  └──┬───┘                                  └──┬───┘   │
   │  ┌──┴────────┐                          ┌────┴──────┐ │
   │  │           •│    ← Penalty Spot       │•          │ │
   │  │ Penalty   )│    ← Penalty Arc        │(  Penalty │ │
   │  │   Area    │                          │    Area   │ │
   │  └───────────┘          │               └───────────┘ │
   │                    ┌────┼────┐                        │
   │                    │    │    │                        │
   │  Corner ─── ╭      │  Centre │      ╮ ─── Corner     │
   │  Arc        │      │  Circle │      │      Arc       │
   │             ╰      │    │    │      ╯                │
   │                    └────┼────┘                        │
   │                    Halfway Line                       │
   └────────────────────────────────────────────────────────┘

Key dimensions:
- Field: 100-110 m (length) × 64-75 m (width)
- Centre circle radius: 9.15 m (10 yards)
- Penalty area: 40.3 m × 16.5 m
- Goal area: 18.3 m × 5.5 m
- Penalty spot: 11 m (12 yards) from goal line
- Corner arc radius: 1 m
- Goal: 7.32 m (8 yards) wide × 2.44 m (8 feet) high

(iii) Answer the following: [8]

(a) During a match, a defender commits a foul by pushing an attacker inside the penalty area. However, the attacker's teammate scores a goal from the resulting play (advantage). What should the referee do? Explain the 'Advantage Rule'. [4]

Answer:
The referee should allow the goal to stand by applying the Advantage Rule.

The Advantage Rule (Law 5) allows the referee to refrain from stopping play for a foul if doing so would benefit the team that committed the foul. When the attacking team gains a clear advantage (in this case, scoring a goal) despite the foul, the referee lets play continue.

In this scenario:
- The foul occurred inside the penalty area (which would normally result in a penalty kick)
- However, the attacking team scored a goal from the continued play
- Since a goal (the maximum advantage) was achieved, the referee allows the goal
- The referee may still caution (yellow card) or send off (red card) the defender during the next stoppage in play if the foul warranted disciplinary action
- If the advantage does not materialise within a few seconds, the referee can bring play back and award the penalty kick

(b) Name the governing bodies of football at the national and international levels. State any two major tournaments at each level. [4]

Answer:
- National governing body: AIFF (All India Football Federation)
- Major national tournaments: (1) Santosh Trophy (national championship for state teams), (2) Durand Cup (oldest football tournament in Asia, club competition)

  • International governing body: FIFA (Fédération Internationale de Football Association)
  • Major international tournaments: (1) FIFA World Cup (held every 4 years, national teams), (2) UEFA Champions League / Copa America (continental club/national team competitions)

  • Laws governed by: IFAB (International Football Association Board)


Question 8 [25]

(i) Define the following terms: [8]

(a) Zonal Marking: A defensive strategy where each defender is assigned a specific zone or area of the field to cover, rather than marking a specific opponent. The defender marks any attacking player who enters their zone. This system provides better defensive coverage of space but can be vulnerable when opponents overload a particular zone.

(b) Man-to-Man Marking: A defensive strategy where each defender is assigned a specific opposing player to mark throughout the match. The defender follows their assigned player regardless of where they move on the field. This provides tight individual coverage but can leave spaces if a defender is beaten.

(c) Overlap: An attacking move where a defender or midfielder runs past a teammate who has the ball, moving into a wider or more advanced position to receive a pass and create a numerical advantage in attack. Common on the flanks where full-backs overlap with wingers.

(d) Goal Line Technology (GLT): A technology system used to determine whether the whole ball has crossed the goal line, assisting the referee in awarding or disallowing goals. The system (e.g., Hawk-Eye or GoalControl) uses multiple cameras to track the ball's position and sends an instant signal to the referee's watch within one second of the ball crossing the line.

(ii) Answer the following: [9]

(a) Explain any three types of kicks used in football with their purpose. [3]

Answer:
1. Corner Kick: Awarded to the attacking team when the ball crosses the goal line (but not into the goal) after last touching a defending player. Taken from the corner arc on the side where the ball went out. Purpose: provides a direct attacking opportunity near the goal.

  1. Goal Kick: Awarded to the defending team when the ball crosses the goal line (but not into the goal) after last touching an attacking player. Taken from anywhere inside the goal area. Purpose: restarts play and gives the defending team possession.

  2. Throw-in: Awarded to the team that did not last touch the ball when it crosses the touchline (sideline). Unlike a kick, it is taken with both hands from behind the head while both feet remain on the ground. Purpose: restarts play from the sideline. A goal cannot be scored directly from a throw-in.

(b) Explain the offside rule in football with a clear example. [3]

Answer:
A player is in an offside position if, at the moment the ball is played to them by a teammate:
- They are in the opponent's half of the field
- They are nearer to the opponent's goal line than both the ball AND the second-last defender (usually the last outfield player, since the goalkeeper is typically the last defender)

Being offside is only an offence if the player is involved in active play — interfering with play, interfering with an opponent, or gaining an advantage from being in that position.

Example: Player A is standing behind all defenders (only the goalkeeper is between them and the goal). Player B passes the ball forward to Player A. At the moment Player B kicks the ball, Player A is ahead of the second-last defender. The assistant referee raises the flag for offside, and an indirect free kick is awarded to the defending team from where Player A was standing.

Not offside: A player receiving the ball directly from a goal kick, corner kick, or throw-in cannot be offside.

(c) What is a 'yellow card' and a 'red card'? State two offences that result in each. [3]

Answer:

Yellow Card (Caution) Red Card (Sending Off)
A warning to the player. Two yellow cards in one match = automatic red card Player is immediately expelled from the match and cannot be replaced
Offence 1: Persistent fouling (repeatedly committing fouls) Offence 1: Serious foul play (violent tackle endangering safety)
Offence 2: Unsporting behaviour (diving/simulation, time-wasting, removing shirt during celebration) Offence 2: Violent conduct (punching, kicking, or spitting at an opponent or any person)

(iii) Answer the following: [8]

(a) Rohit is a centre-back. During a match, he notices the opposing team using a 4-3-3 formation with fast wingers. Suggest a defensive strategy Rohit's team could use and explain why it would be effective. [4]

Answer:
Rohit's team should use a 4-4-2 formation with zonal marking on the flanks and man-to-man marking on the centre forward, combined with a compact defensive shape.

Strategy explanation:
- The four defenders maintain a flat back line, staying narrow and compact to limit space between them
- The wide midfielders (left and right) drop back to form a line of six when defending, doubling up on the fast wingers with the full-backs. This 2-v-1 overload on each flank neutralises the speed advantage of the wingers
- Communication is key — the centre-backs (including Rohit) organise the defensive line and call the offside trap when appropriate
- When a winger receives the ball, the full-back applies pressure while the wide midfielder covers the space behind, preventing cutbacks and crosses
- The team should avoid pressing too high against fast wingers, instead sitting deeper to reduce the space behind the defence for through balls

This strategy works because fast wingers are most dangerous in open space. By staying compact and doubling up, the team eliminates space and forces the opposition to play through the crowded central areas where Rohit's presence as centre-back can intercept and win headers.

(b) Name any four basic skills in football. Briefly describe the technique for performing a 'header'. [4]

Answer:
Four basic skills in football:
1. Passing (short pass, long pass, through ball)
2. Dribbling (close ball control while running)
3. Shooting (striking the ball towards goal)
4. Tackling (legally winning the ball from an opponent)

Technique for performing a Header:
- Body position: Stand with feet shoulder-width apart, knees slightly bent, body balanced
- Eyes: Keep eyes open and focused on the ball throughout — never close your eyes
- Neck and forehead: Use the forehead (the flat, hard area above the eyebrows) to make contact — never the top of the head
- Movement: Arch the upper body backward as the ball approaches, then drive forward from the waist and hips, using the core and neck muscles to generate power
- Contact point: Strike the ball with the centre of the forehead for a straight header, or angle the head to direct the ball left or right
- Follow through: Continue the forward movement of the head and body through the ball in the direction of the target
- For defensive headers: Direct the ball high, far, and wide to clear danger
- For attacking headers: Direct the ball downward toward the corners of the goal


HOCKEY

Question 9 [25]

(i) Define the following terms: [8]

(a) Penalty Corner: Awarded to the attacking team when a defending player commits a foul inside the striking circle (23m area), or when a defender intentionally plays the ball over the backline. The ball is placed on the backline at least 10 metres from the nearest goal post, and five defenders (including the goalkeeper) stand behind the backline while the remaining defenders stay beyond the centre line. The ball must be pushed or hit out, stopped outside the circle, and then shot at goal. The first shot must not exceed the height of the backboard (460mm) unless it is a flick or scoop.

(b) Bully: A method of restarting play in hockey (similar to a face-off in ice hockey). Two opposing players face each other with the ball between them. Each player taps the ground on their side of the ball and then taps the opponent's stick above the ball — this is done three times alternately. After the third tap, both players can attempt to play the ball. A bully is rarely used in modern hockey but can be called when the umpire cannot determine which team should have possession.

(c) Reverse Stick: A technique in hockey where the player turns the stick so that the flat face (the legal playing surface) is used to play the ball on the left side of the body. Since hockey sticks have only one flat face (right side), the stick must be turned over to play the ball on the left. This technique is used for stopping, passing, and tackling on the left side.

(d) Sweep Pass: A passing technique where the stick is placed flat on the ground and swept through the ball in a sweeping motion, keeping the ball in contact with the stick for a longer period than a hit. This produces a powerful, accurate pass that stays low on the ground. It is commonly used for penalty corners and long passes.

(ii) Answer the following: [9]

(a) Explain the card system used in hockey. State the consequence of each card. [3]

Answer:
Hockey uses a three-card system:

  1. Green Card: A formal warning to the player for a minor offence. The player can continue playing but is put on notice. If the behaviour continues, a yellow or red card may follow.

  2. Yellow Card: A temporary suspension. The player must leave the field for a minimum of 5 minutes (the umpire can specify a longer period for serious offences). The team plays with one fewer player during the suspension.

  3. Red Card: A permanent expulsion from the match. The player must leave the field and the surrounding area. The team continues with one fewer player for the rest of the match (no replacement is allowed).

(b) State any three differences between a Penalty Corner and a Penalty Stroke. [3]

Answer:

Penalty Corner Penalty Stroke
Awarded for fouls inside the circle or intentional fouls outside Awarded for deliberate fouls that prevent a probable goal
Ball placed on backline, 10m from goal post Ball placed on the penalty spot (6.475m from goal)
5 defenders behind backline, rest beyond centre Only the goalkeeper defends; all other players behind centre line
Ball must be stopped outside circle before shooting One-on-one: player pushes, flicks, or scoops the ball at goal in one motion
Multiple shots possible Single attempt only
If goal scored, worth 1 goal If goal scored, worth 1 goal

(c) State the duration of a hockey match and the specifications of the hockey stick and ball. [3]

Answer:
- Match duration: 4 quarters of 15 minutes each (total 60 minutes of playing time), with breaks of 2 minutes between Q1-Q2 and Q3-Q4, and a 10-minute half-time break between Q2-Q3
- Hockey stick: Maximum weight 737g; maximum length 1.05m (105 cm); must pass through a ring of 51mm internal diameter; flat face on the left side only (when held in playing position)
- Hockey ball: Weight 156-163g; circumference 224-235mm; hard, spherical, made of solid plastic; white or coloured (must contrast with the playing surface)

(iii) Answer the following: [8]

(a) During a match, a defender deliberately fouls an attacker who was about to score a goal from inside the circle. What decision should the umpire give? Explain the procedure. [4]

Answer:
The umpire should award a Penalty Stroke to the attacking team.

Reason: A Penalty Stroke is awarded when a defending player commits an intentional foul inside the circle that prevents a probable goal. Since the attacker was about to score, the defender's deliberate foul denied an almost certain goal.

Procedure for Penalty Stroke:
1. The ball is placed on the penalty spot, which is 6.475 metres from the centre of the goal
2. Only the goalkeeper (or defending player if no goalkeeper) defends the goal, standing on the goal line with both feet on the line until the ball is played
3. The attacker taking the stroke stands behind and within playing distance of the ball
4. All other players must stand beyond the centre line
5. On the umpire's whistle, the player can push, flick, or scoop the ball (but not hit it) in one continuous motion
6. If the goalkeeper moves before the ball is played, and a goal is not scored, the stroke is retaken
7. The defender may also receive a yellow or red card depending on the severity of the foul

(b) Name the governing bodies of hockey at the national and international levels. State any two major tournaments at each level. [4]

Answer:
- National governing body: Hockey India (HI)
- Major national tournaments: (1) National Hockey Championship (Senior), (2) Nehru Hockey Tournament

  • International governing body: FIH (Fédération Internationale de Hockey / International Hockey Federation)
  • Major international tournaments: (1) FIH Hockey World Cup (held every 4 years), (2) Olympic Hockey Tournament

Question 10 [25]

(Alternative Hockey question — students answer either Q9 or Q10)

(i) Define the following terms: [8]

(a) Aerial: A skill in hockey where the ball is intentionally lifted into the air over one or more opponents' sticks using a flick or scoop technique. The ball must be played safely — if lifted dangerously toward another player within 5 metres, it is a foul. Aerials are used to bypass defenders and create attacking opportunities.

(b) Undercutting: A technique where the stick is placed under the ball at an angle and scooped upward to lift the ball into the air. The stick slides beneath the ball with a forward and upward motion. This technique is used for aerials, flicks at goal during penalty corners, and lobbing the ball over defenders.

(c) 23-Metre Area (Shooting Circle): The area on the hockey field enclosed by the quarter-circle arcs drawn from each goal post with a radius of 14.63 metres (16 yards) and connected by a straight line parallel to the backline. A goal can only be scored from inside this area — shots from outside the circle do not count, even if the ball enters the goal. Penalty corners are awarded for fouls committed inside this area.

(d) Manufactured Foul: A deliberate act by a player to create the appearance of being fouled by an opponent in order to gain an advantage (such as winning a free hit or penalty corner). This is considered unsporting behaviour and the umpire may penalise the player who manufactured the foul rather than the apparent offender. Repeated manufactured fouls may result in a green or yellow card.

(ii) Answer the following: [9]

(a) Explain the role and responsibilities of the goalkeeper in hockey. [3]

Answer:
1. Primary role: Defend the goal by stopping, deflecting, or clearing shots from the opposing team within the shooting circle
2. Equipment: Wears protective gear including helmet with face guard, chest protector, padded gloves (kickers and leg guards), and throat protector
3. Special privileges: The goalkeeper is the only player allowed to use any part of the body (including feet and hands) to play the ball, but only within the shooting circle
4. Positioning: Directs and organises the defensive line, communicates with defenders about marking and positioning
5. Penalty corners: During penalty corners, the goalkeeper stands on the goal line and must react quickly to the first shot
6. Distribution: After saving a shot, the goalkeeper distributes the ball quickly to initiate counter-attacks

(Any three points for full marks)

(b) State three differences between a 'Push' and a 'Hit' in hockey. [3]

Answer:

Push Hit
The ball is moved with a pushing motion while the stick is in contact with the ball The ball is struck with a swinging/hitting motion after a backswing
Stick remains in contact with the ball throughout the stroke Stick makes brief contact at the point of impact
No backswing — controlled, quiet technique Requires a backswing — more powerful but less controlled
Produces less power but more accuracy Produces more power but less accuracy
Used for short passes, penalty corners (initial push), and controlled play Used for long passes, clearances, and shots at goal
Safer in crowded areas (no raised stick) Can be dangerous if stick is raised above shoulder height

(c) Draw and label the hockey field showing: centre line, 23-metre lines, shooting circles, penalty spots, and goal posts. [3]

Answer:

   ┌──────────────────────────────────────────────────────┐
   │  Backline                                  Backline  │
   │    ╭────╮                                  ╭────╮    │
   │    │Goal│                                  │Goal│    │
   │   ╭┤    ├╮  ← Shooting Circle     Circle→╭┤    ├╮   │
   │   │╰────╯│  •← Penalty Spot    Spot →•   │╰────╯│   │
   │   ╰──────╯                                ╰──────╯   │
   │  23m line ─ ─ ─ ─ ─ ─ ─ ─  ─ ─ ─ ─ ─ ─ ─ 23m line │
   │                         │                             │
   │                    Centre Line                        │
   │                    Centre Spot •                      │
   │                         │                             │
   │  23m line ─ ─ ─ ─ ─ ─ ─ ─  ─ ─ ─ ─ ─ ─ ─ 23m line │
   │   ╭──────╮                                ╭──────╮   │
   │   │╭────╮│                                │╭────╮│   │
   │   ╰┤    ├╯                                ╰┤    ├╯   │
   │    │Goal│                                  │Goal│    │
   │    ╰────╯                                  ╰────╯    │
   │  Backline                                  Backline  │
   └──────────────────────────────────────────────────────┘

Key dimensions:
- Field: 91.4 m × 55 m
- Shooting circle radius: 14.63 m (16 yards) from each goal post
- 23-metre line: 22.9 m from each backline
- Penalty spot: 6.475 m from the centre of the goal
- Goal: 3.66 m (12 feet) wide × 2.14 m (7 feet) high
- Centre spot: Centre of the field

(iii) Answer the following: [8]

(a) Describe the structure and rules of a penalty corner in hockey, including the positioning of all players. [4]

Answer:
Penalty Corner Structure and Rules:

Attacking team:
- One player (the injector) stands on the backline with the ball placed on the backline, at least 10 metres from the nearest goal post
- The remaining attacking players stand outside the shooting circle with sticks, feet, and balls outside the circle line
- On the injector's signal, they push or hit the ball into the circle

Defending team:
- A maximum of 5 defenders (including the goalkeeper) stand behind the backline inside the goal
- The remaining defenders stand beyond the centre line
- Defenders cannot move from the backline until the ball is pushed out

Rules of play:
1. The ball must travel outside the circle before the first shot at goal
2. The ball must be stopped (not necessarily motionless) before a shot is taken
3. The first shot at goal must not be higher than the backboard (460mm / 18 inches) unless it is a drag flick or scoop
4. If the ball travels more than 5 metres from the circle, the penalty corner ends
5. A goal scored directly from the push-out (without being stopped) does not count
6. If a defender commits another foul during the penalty corner, a penalty stroke may be awarded

(b) List any four skills essential for a hockey midfielder and explain why each is important. [4]

Answer:
1. Passing accuracy (both push and hit): Midfielders are the link between defence and attack. Accurate passing allows them to distribute the ball effectively, maintain possession, and create attacking opportunities. Both short pushes for build-up play and long hits for switching play are essential.

  1. Dribbling and close ball control: Midfielders often receive the ball in congested areas of the midfield. Good dribbling allows them to evade opponents, carry the ball forward, and create space for teammates.

  2. Tackling (block and jab tackles): Midfielders must win the ball back when the opposition has possession. Strong tackling ability allows them to break up opposition attacks, intercept passes, and transition quickly from defence to attack.

  3. Fitness and endurance: Midfielders cover the most distance on the field, constantly moving between defence and attack. High cardiovascular endurance allows them to maintain performance levels throughout all four quarters of the match.


BASKETBALL

Question 11 [25]

(i) Define the following terms: [8]

(a) Double Dribble: A violation in basketball that occurs when a player: (1) dribbles the ball with both hands simultaneously, or (2) stops dribbling (picks up the ball), and then begins dribbling again. Once a player ends their dribble, they must pass or shoot — they cannot dribble again. The penalty is a turnover — the opposing team receives possession from the sideline.

(b) Fast Break: An offensive strategy where a team attempts to move the ball up the court and score as quickly as possible after gaining possession (usually from a rebound, steal, or turnover), before the defending team can set up their defence. The goal is to create a numerical advantage (e.g., 2-on-1 or 3-on-2) near the basket.

(c) Triple Threat Position: The fundamental stance a player takes when they receive the ball and have not yet dribbled. From this position, the player can: (1) shoot, (2) pass, or (3) dribble — hence the name "triple threat." The player stands with knees bent, ball at chest level, and weight balanced, ready to execute any of the three options.

(d) Box Out (Blocking Out): A rebounding technique where a player positions their body between an opponent and the basket to prevent the opponent from getting the rebound. The player turns to face the basket, spreads their arms wide, bends their knees, and uses their lower body to maintain position, then jumps to secure the rebound.

(ii) Answer the following: [9]

(a) Explain the 3-second rule, the 8-second rule, and the 24-second rule in basketball. [3]

Answer:
1. 3-Second Rule: An offensive player cannot remain in the opponent's restricted area (the painted area/key) for more than 3 consecutive seconds while their team has possession of the ball. Violation results in a turnover.

  1. 8-Second Rule: After gaining possession in the backcourt (their own half), a team must advance the ball across the centre line into the frontcourt (opponent's half) within 8 seconds. Failure results in a turnover.

  2. 24-Second Rule (Shot Clock): A team must attempt a shot that hits the rim within 24 seconds of gaining possession. If the ball hits the rim, the shot clock resets to 24 seconds (or 14 seconds in certain situations). Failure results in a turnover.

(b) Differentiate between a personal foul and a technical foul. [3]

Answer:

Personal Foul Technical Foul
Involves illegal physical contact with an opponent Non-contact foul involving unsporting behaviour or procedural violations
Examples: pushing, holding, charging, blocking, tripping Examples: arguing with referee, using abusive language, delay of game, hanging on the rim
Penalty: free throws (if shooting foul) or sideline possession Penalty: one free throw + possession to the opposing team
A player is disqualified after 5 personal fouls in a game Two technical fouls result in automatic ejection

(c) State the court dimensions, hoop height, and duration of a basketball game (as per FIBA rules). [3]

Answer:
- Court dimensions: 28 metres (length) × 15 metres (width)
- Hoop (basket) height: 3.05 metres (10 feet) from the floor
- Backboard: 1.80 m × 1.05 m
- Three-point line: 6.75 m from the centre of the basket
- Free throw line: 4.6 m (15 feet) from the backboard
- Game duration (FIBA): 4 quarters of 10 minutes each (total 40 minutes of playing time), with 2-minute breaks between Q1-Q2 and Q3-Q4, and a 15-minute half-time break

(iii) Answer the following: [8]

(a) A player catches a rebound and lands with both feet simultaneously. They then pivot on their right foot and pass the ball. Is this legal? Explain the travelling rule. [4]

Answer:
Yes, this is legal. When a player catches the ball while both feet are on the floor simultaneously, they can choose either foot as the pivot foot. Once the pivot foot is established (right foot in this case), the player can:
- Lift the non-pivot foot (left foot) to pass or shoot
- Turn or rotate on the pivot foot in any direction
- The pivot foot must NOT be lifted or dragged before the ball is released for a pass or shot

The Travelling Rule:
Travelling (also called "walking") is a violation that occurs when a player holding the ball illegally moves one or both feet. Specifically:
- After establishing a pivot foot, if the player lifts the pivot foot before releasing the ball for a dribble, pass, or shot
- Taking more than two steps without dribbling after catching the ball while moving
- Sliding or dragging the pivot foot along the floor
- Falling to the floor while holding the ball without passing or shooting before landing

Penalty: Turnover — the opposing team receives the ball from the nearest sideline.

(b) Name the governing bodies of basketball at the national and international levels. State any two major tournaments at each level. [4]

Answer:
- National governing body: BFI (Basketball Federation of India)
- Major national tournaments: (1) National Basketball Championship (Senior), (2) Federation Cup Basketball

  • International governing body: FIBA (Fédération Internationale de Basketball / International Basketball Federation)
  • Major international tournaments: (1) FIBA Basketball World Cup (held every 4 years), (2) Olympic Basketball Tournament

VOLLEYBALL

Question 12 [25]

(i) Define the following terms: [8]

(a) Libero: A specialised defensive player who wears a contrasting jersey and can replace any back-row player without counting as a substitution. The Libero cannot serve (in most rule sets), attack the ball above net height, or set the ball in the front zone using an overhand technique. They are typically the best passer and digger on the team.

(b) Rally: The sequence of play from the moment the server strikes the ball until the point is decided (ball hits the floor, goes out of bounds, or a fault is committed). In rally point scoring, every rally results in a point — regardless of which team served.

(c) Ace: A serve that results in a direct point — either the receiving team fails to touch the ball, or the ball is touched but cannot be returned over the net. An ace is the most efficient way to score as it requires no further play by the serving team.

(d) Rotation: The clockwise movement of players around the six positions on the court that occurs each time a team wins the serve back (side-out). Players rotate one position clockwise before the new server serves. Rotation ensures all players serve and play both front-row and back-row positions. Players must be in their correct rotational order at the moment of serve.

(ii) Answer the following: [9]

(a) Explain the role of the Libero and list three rules that apply specifically to this player. [3]

Answer:
The Libero is a back-row defensive specialist whose primary role is to receive serves (pass) and dig attacks (defensive play).

Three rules specific to the Libero:
1. Must wear a jersey that clearly contrasts with the rest of the team
2. Cannot serve, block, or attempt to block (or participate in a completed block)
3. Cannot attack the ball above net height from anywhere on the court; if the Libero sets the ball using an overhand technique while inside the front zone (attack line), the attacker may not complete an attack above the net height on that ball

(b) Explain the scoring system in volleyball (rally point system). [3]

Answer:
- Rally Point System: A point is scored on every rally, regardless of which team served. Previously, only the serving team could score (side-out scoring), but the modern rally point system speeds up the game.
- Set scores: A team must score 25 points to win a set, with a minimum 2-point lead (e.g., 25-23, 26-24, 27-25)
- Match format: Best of 5 sets. The first team to win 3 sets wins the match.
- Deciding set (5th set): Played to 15 points (with a minimum 2-point lead), and teams switch sides when one team reaches 8 points.

(c) State the court dimensions, net height (men's and women's), and team composition in volleyball. [3]

Answer:
- Court dimensions: 18 m × 9 m (each half is 9 m × 9 m)
- Attack line (3-metre line): 3 m from the centre line on each side
- Net height: Men: 2.43 m; Women: 2.24 m
- Net length: 9.5 m to 10 m; width: 1 m
- Team composition: 6 players on court + 1 Libero. A team can have up to 14 players on the roster. Maximum 6 substitutions per set (Libero replacements are unlimited and do not count as substitutions).

(iii) Answer the following: [8]

(a) Explain the concept of 'rotation fault' and 'positional fault'. How does the referee penalise these violations? [4]

Answer:
Rotation Fault: Occurs when a team's players are not in the correct rotational order when the serve is made. Each player has a designated position number (1-6), and the rotational order established at the start of the set must be maintained throughout. If a player is out of their correct rotational position at the moment of the serve, a rotation fault is called.

Positional Fault (Overlapping): Occurs at the moment of serve when players are not in their correct positions relative to their adjacent teammates:
- Each back-row player must be further from the net than their corresponding front-row player (e.g., Position 1 must be behind Position 2)
- Each player must be to the correct side of their adjacent player in the same row (e.g., Position 4 must be to the left of Position 3)

Penalties for both violations:
1. The opposing team is awarded a point AND the serve
2. The players must return to their correct positions
3. If both teams commit a positional fault simultaneously, a re-serve (let) is called

(b) Name any four basic skills in volleyball and describe the technique for an 'overhand serve'. [4]

Answer:
Four basic skills:
1. Serving (underhand, overhand, jump serve)
2. Passing/Receiving (forearm pass/bump)
3. Setting (overhand pass to attacker)
4. Spiking/Attack (hitting the ball forcefully over the net)

Technique for an Overhand Serve (Float Serve):
1. Stance: Stand behind the end line with feet shoulder-width apart, non-dominant foot slightly forward
2. Ball position: Hold the ball in the non-dominant hand at shoulder height, arm extended in front
3. Toss: Toss the ball 30-50 cm above the hitting hand, slightly in front of the hitting shoulder. The toss should be consistent — not too high or too far forward
4. Arm swing: Draw the hitting arm back with the elbow high (like a bow and arrow), then swing forward in a straight line toward the target
5. Contact: Strike the ball with the heel/palm of the open hand, making contact at the centre-back of the ball at the highest reachable point. Keep the wrist firm (do not snap)
6. Follow-through: Minimal follow-through for a float serve (creates unpredictable movement); full follow-through for a topspin serve (creates downward trajectory)
7. Weight transfer: Shift weight from the back foot to the front foot during the serve


BADMINTON

Question 13 [25]

(i) Define the following terms: [8]

(a) Clear (Lob): A high, deep shot played from one end of the court to the other, sending the shuttle to the back of the opponent's court near the baseline. Used defensively to gain time and push the opponent away from the net, or offensively (attacking clear — flatter trajectory) to force the opponent into a difficult position at the back court.

(b) Smash: The most powerful attacking shot in badminton. The shuttle is struck with maximum force in a steep downward angle from an overhead position. The smash is typically played when the shuttle is high enough to hit downward. It is the primary point-winning shot, with shuttle speeds exceeding 300 km/h at the professional level.

(c) Let: A situation in badminton where the rally is stopped and the point is replayed without any change in score. A let is called when: (1) the server serves before the receiver is ready, (2) both the server and receiver commit a fault simultaneously, (3) the shuttle gets caught on the top of the net and hangs there, or (4) an unforeseen disturbance occurs during play.

(d) Net Kill: An attacking shot played very close to the net where the shuttle is hit sharply downward into the opponent's court. The player must have quick reflexes and soft hands. The racket face is angled steeply downward, and the shuttle is tapped with a short, sharp motion. It is used to finish rallies when the opponent plays a weak net shot.

(ii) Answer the following: [9]

(a) Explain the service rules in singles and doubles badminton. [3]

Answer:
Singles Service Rules:
- The server serves from the right service court when their score is even (0, 2, 4...) and from the left when odd (1, 3, 5...)
- The serve must be diagonal — from the server's court to the diagonally opposite service court
- The serve must land within the long service line (back boundary for singles — the full length of the court)
- The entire shuttle must be below the server's waist (1.15 m from the floor) at the moment of being hit

Doubles Service Rules:
- Same serving position rules as singles (right court for even score, left for odd)
- The serve must land within the short service area — behind the short service line but before the doubles long service line (the line 76 cm before the back boundary)
- Only the receiver can return the serve; after the return, either partner can hit the shuttle
- Players do NOT rotate positions (unlike volleyball); the serving side alternates between partners

(b) State three differences between the singles court and the doubles court in badminton. [3]

Answer:

Feature Singles Court Doubles Court
Width 5.18 m (inner sidelines used) 6.10 m (outer sidelines used — the 'alley' is in play)
Service area length Full court length — back boundary is the baseline Shorter service area — the long service line for doubles is 76 cm before the baseline
Service area width Narrower (5.18 m, using inner sidelines) Wider (6.10 m, using outer sidelines including the alleys)
Alleys (tramlines) Out of play In play for all shots during the rally

(c) Name the governing bodies of badminton at the national and international levels. State any two major tournaments at each level. [3]

Answer:
- National governing body: BAI (Badminton Association of India)
- Major national tournaments: (1) National Badminton Championship (Senior), (2) Indian Open (BWF Super Series)

  • International governing body: BWF (Badminton World Federation)
  • Major international tournaments: (1) All England Open Badminton Championships (oldest and most prestigious), (2) Thomas Cup (men's team) / Uber Cup (women's team)

(iii) Answer the following: [8]

(a) Describe the technique for playing a 'drop shot' in badminton. When would you use a drop shot during a rally? [4]

Answer:
Technique for a Drop Shot:
1. Preparation: The player positions themselves behind the shuttle, similar to an overhead clear. The body and racket preparation looks identical to a smash or clear — this deception is crucial
2. Grip: Use a relaxed forehand grip (for forehand drop) or switch to backhand grip (for backhand drop)
3. Swing: Begin the swing as if playing a clear or smash, but at the point of contact, reduce the racket speed significantly
4. Contact point: Hit the shuttle gently with a controlled, slicing motion. The racket face angles slightly downward, brushing the shuttle rather than striking it with full force
5. Wrist action: Use a gentle wrist rotation to guide the shuttle just over the net with minimal height
6. Follow-through: Short and controlled (unlike the full follow-through of a clear)
7. Landing: The shuttle should fall just past the net on the opponent's side, ideally within 1-2 feet of the net

When to use a drop shot:
- When the opponent is positioned at the back of the court (forces them to rush forward)
- After playing several clears to the baseline (the opponent expects another clear and is caught off guard)
- When the opponent is tired or slow (they may not reach the shuttle in time)
- As a variation to keep the opponent guessing and prevent them from settling into a rhythm

(b) Explain the scoring system in badminton. What happens when the score reaches 20-20? [4]

Answer:
Scoring System:
- Rally point scoring: A point is scored on every rally, regardless of who served
- Game format: Best of 3 games (the first player/pair to win 2 games wins the match)
- Points per game: 21 points to win a game
- Minimum lead: A player must win by at least 2 points

When the score reaches 20-20:
1. The game continues beyond 21 points
2. The player/pair who gains a 2-point lead first wins the game (e.g., 22-20, 23-21, 24-22)
3. If the score reaches 29-29, the player/pair who scores the 30th point wins the game (the 2-point lead rule is overridden at 29-all)
4. The maximum possible score in a game is therefore 30-29

Other scoring rules:
- At 11 points, there is a 60-second interval (mid-game break)
- Between games, there is a 120-second interval (2-minute break)
- Players switch ends after each game, and in the third game, they switch ends when the leading player reaches 11 points


Prepared by Bright Tutorials, Nashik | brighttutorials.in
This is a prediction paper based on ICSE syllabus analysis, CISCE specimen paper analysis, and previous year exam trends. It does not claim to represent the actual ICSE 2026 examination paper.


Last-Minute Revision Tips for ICSE Physical Education 2026

  1. Master the MCQ formats — Practice Assertion-Reason and Match the Columns questions. These newer formats need familiarity so you don't lose time reading unfamiliar structures during the exam.
  2. Know all 8 theory chapters thoroughly — Growth & Development, Physical Education objectives, Somatotypes, Physical Fitness components, Sports Training principles, Safety in Sports (injuries + first aid), Health Education (nutrition + diseases), and Careers in PE. Every chapter gets tested.
  3. Memorize the key definitions and differences — Growth vs Development, Health-related vs Motor skill-related fitness, Undernutrition vs Overnutrition, Macro vs Meso vs Micro cycles. Examiners love comparison questions.
  4. Learn the P.R.I.C.E. protocol and common injuries — Concussion, Shin Splints, Plantar Fasciitis, Sprains, Strains, and Fractures. Know causes, symptoms, first aid, and prevention for each.
  5. Prepare 2 games deeply, not 6 superficially — You only need to answer TWO games in Section B. Pick your strongest two and master definitions, rules, field dimensions, fouls, governing bodies, and major tournaments.
  6. Draw and label field diagrams — Practice drawing the field/court for your chosen games with all markings and dimensions. Diagram questions carry 3 marks and are easy to score if you have practiced.
  7. Answer in points with bold keywords — For definition and explanation questions, use numbered points with key terms in bold. This helps examiners quickly spot your answers and award marks.

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Prepared by Bright Tutorials, Nashik (Shop No. 53-57, Business Signature, Hariom Nagar, Nashik Road, Nashik 422101) | brighttutorials.in | This is a prediction paper based on CISCE syllabus analysis, specimen paper analysis, and previous year exam trends. It does not claim to represent the actual ICSE 2026 examination paper. For personal study use only.

Tags: ICSE 2026 Physical Education Prediction Paper ICSE Board Exam Class 10 Sample Paper Question Paper Free Download Board Exam Preparation Sports Cricket Football Hockey Basketball Volleyball Badminton Nashik PE Paper

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